AAPC-COC Certified Outpatient Coder - Set 1 - Part 1

Correct Answer: Suffix

The technique for defining medical terms starts the definition with the meaning of the suffix. It then moves to the beginning of the term and defines the remaining word parts in the order they appear. Option b is incorrect because a prefix stands at the start of the term, so it is defined after the suffix, when the definition moves to the beginning. Option c is incorrect because it adds no meaning to define; combining vowels are inserted afterward simply so the term can be pronounced. Option d is incorrect because it is taken up only after the suffix, because the definition then shifts to the beginning and follows the order of appearance.

Correct Answer: Therapeutic

Therapeutic terms concern the treating or curing of diseases. A nebulizer, a device that creates a mist to deliver medication for respiratory treatment, is the textbook example of this category. Option a is incorrect because anatomical terms describe specific areas and movement of the body and the relation of body parts to each other, not treatment. Option b is incorrect because these terms name deviations from the normal structural or functional state, such as bronchopneumonia, rather than the treatment of them. Option d is incorrect because this category is tied to the process of identifying a disease, condition, or injury, as in a transrectal ultrasound.

Correct Answer: Removal of the kidney

The ending -ectomy equals removal, and nephr- refers to the kidney, so nephrectomy means removal of the kidney. The same ending appears in gastrectomy, colectomy and tonsillectomy. Option a is incorrect because reflects a scope-type procedure like colonoscopy, which is a view of the colon; it is not what -ectomy signifies. Option c is incorrect because describes the ending -itis, which means inflammation, and a term built on it would be written differently from this one. Option d is incorrect because matches the ending -ostomy, meaning opening of, as in colostomy, rather than the -ectomy ending found in this term.

Correct Answer: I and II

Bell's palsy temporarily paralyzes facial muscles, so it is localized paralysis, and hemiplegia affects one side of the body. Paraplegia does not involve all limbs, and flaccid muscles atrophy rather than spasm. Option b is incorrect because statement III describes quadriplegia or tetraplegia, which involves all limbs; paraplegia affects both legs and sometimes the torso. Option c is incorrect because statement IV reverses the types: tightening with jerks and spasms marks spastic paralysis, while flaccid muscles shrink from loss of function. Option d is incorrect because both statements are inaccurate, since paraplegia is limited to the legs and sometimes the torso, and flaccid muscles atrophy rather than tighten.

Correct Answer: I, II, and III

Benign growths are not cancerous and do not spread, lipoma is a fatty tissue tumor, and squamous cell carcinoma can metastasize if not removed. Dermatofibroma is a benign growth, so statement IV is false. Option b is incorrect because it leaves out statement III, and the guidance states that squamous cell carcinomas can metastasize to other parts of the body if not removed. Option c is incorrect because it includes statement IV, yet dermatofibroma is described as a firm, nodular growth on the skin, which is a benign tumor and not a cancer. Option d is incorrect because it relies on statement IV, which mislabels dermatofibroma, and it drops statement II, although lipoma is correctly described as a fatty tissue tumor.

Correct Answer: Debridement followed by skin grafting

Full-thickness burns destroy tissue through the epidermis and dermis, so they require debridement, the surgical removal of dead tissue, followed by grafting skin from an unaffected body part or from tissue culture. Option a is incorrect because the Rule of Nines is an emergency department tool for measuring burned surface area and estimating intravenous fluids, not a treatment for tissue destruction. Option b is incorrect because keeping the site clean to prevent infection is the care described for second-degree (partial thickness) burns, which heal within several weeks, not full-thickness burns. Option c is incorrect because healing on its own within a few days describes a first-degree (superficial) burn that affects only the epidermis, a far shallower injury.

Correct Answer: onych/o

The combining form onych/o means nail, as in onychomycosis, which is an abnormal condition of a fungus in the nails. The root ungu/o also means nail. Option b is incorrect because it is the combining form for hair, not nail, and appears in terms about the hair rather than the nail. Option c is incorrect because it refers to sebum, the oily substance, and has no link to the nail in integumentary word building. Option d is incorrect because it means sweat, so it belongs in terms about sweat production instead of terms about the nail.

Correct Answer: Bronchospasm

Bronchospasm is a symptom of many respiratory conditions and refers to a sudden constriction of the muscles in the walls of the bronchi. The word root bronch refers to the bronchi. Option a is incorrect because it is an incision in the trachea creating an artificial opening for breathing when an obstruction is present. Option b is incorrect because it is a procedure in which a tube is inserted so a specialist can visually examine the bronchi. Option d is incorrect because it names inflammation of the bronchi, a condition of the tissue itself rather than a sudden muscular constriction.

Correct Answer: Perfusion

Perfusion refers to the flow of blood, the second important aspect of gas exchange alongside ventilation. It describes normal circulation, not an abnormal breathing pattern or blood gas level like the other terms. Option a is incorrect because names toxic high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, which makes it an abnormal blood gas condition. Option c is incorrect because is defined as slow and shallow breathing, so it is an altered breathing pattern. Option d is incorrect because is a blood gas term meaning low levels of oxygen in the blood, so it describes an abnormal gas status.

Correct Answer: I and II

Pneumonia is an infection of the alveoli caused by microorganisms, and the common cold, or upper respiratory infection, is a viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. Statements III and IV misstate hypoventilation and hypercapnia. Option b is incorrect because statement III reverses the term: rapid and deep breathing is hyperventilation, while hypoventilation is slow and shallow breathing, so this pairing contains a false statement. Option c is incorrect because statement IV is wrong because low oxygen in the blood is hypoxemia; hypercapnia is a toxic high level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Option d is incorrect because both of these statements are false, and the pairing leaves out the accurate descriptions of pneumonia and the common cold.

Correct Answer: pyel/o

The root pyel/o is the combining form listed for the renal pelvis. Related roots such as nephr/o and ren/o are listed with the meaning kidney, while pyel/o is the one defined as renal pelvis. Option a is incorrect because it is defined as pus, so it does not name the renal pelvis. Option b is incorrect because it is listed with the meaning meatus, which is a different term from the renal pelvis. Option d is incorrect because its listed meaning is glomerulus, so it names a different term than the renal pelvis.

Correct Answer: No combining vowel joins the prefix and root, and none is usually needed before the vowel suffix

A combining vowel is not used to connect a prefix and a word root, as in sub/hepat/ic. When a suffix begins with a vowel, the root and suffix are usually joined without a combining vowel, as in hepat/ic. Option a is incorrect because the guidelines state a combining vowel is not used to connect a prefix and a word root, so placing one there breaks the rule. Option b is incorrect because this repeats the prefix error and also adds a vowel before a suffix that begins with a vowel, where it is usually not used. Option c is incorrect because the prefix handling is right, but a root joined to a suffix beginning with a vowel usually takes no combining vowel, as in hepat/ic.

Correct Answer: Prostatitis

Prostatitis refers to inflammation of the prostate gland and sometimes areas surrounding it. It can be acute or chronic, and some types are caused by a bacterial infection. Option b is incorrect because its root epididym/o points to the epididymis, a different male reproductive structure, so it does not describe the prostate. Option c is incorrect because it names noncancerous enlargement of the prostate that narrows the urethra and leads to urinary retention, not an inflammatory condition. Option d is incorrect because built on the root orchi/o, this term concerns the testis or testicle rather than the prostate gland.

Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

Cryptorchidism is the clinical term used when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum prior to birth. The descent normally occurs during the seventh month of fetal development. Option a is incorrect because it refers to the absence of one of the testes, not to testes that are present but have failed to descend. Option c is incorrect because it names varicose veins within the spermatic cord, a vascular condition that has nothing to do with testicular descent. Option d is incorrect because it describes a testicle rotating within its sac and blocking its own blood supply, which is a different problem from non-descent.

Correct Answer: Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of both ovaries and Fallopian tubes. The term combines salpingo- for the tube and oophorectomy for the ovary, with bilateral indicating both sides. Option a is incorrect because it is the removal of a Fallopian tube, which leaves out the ovaries entirely. Option b is incorrect because it describes removal of both ovaries only, so the Fallopian tubes would not be included in the procedure. Option d is incorrect because it removes part of the uterus while leaving the cervix intact, so it concerns the uterus rather than ovaries and tubes.

Correct Answer: Metrorrhagia

Metrorrhagia is defined as bleeding from the uterus between menstrual periods. The other terms describe excessive flow, infrequent or light flow, or unusually short cycles rather than intermenstrual bleeding. Option a is incorrect because it means frequent menstruation with cycles shorter than 21 days, a problem of cycle length instead of bleeding between periods. Option b is incorrect because it describes excessive menstrual bleeding, which is heavy flow during the period itself rather than bleeding occurring between periods. Option c is incorrect because it refers to infrequent or very light menstruation, so it describes reduced flow rather than bleeding outside the expected menstrual period.

Correct Answer: Zygote

A zygote is the diploid cell formed when a sperm and an ovum combine at fertilization. The haploid gametes each carry half the genetic material, and the zygote then divides by mitosis while traveling through the Fallopian tube. Option a is incorrect because the endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus where the zygote implants; it is maternal tissue, not a cell formed at conception. Option b is incorrect because an embryo is an organism in early development spanning Day 16 through Week 8, which is later than the single diploid cell that first divides. Option d is incorrect because gamete is the general term for a reproductive cell, either sperm or ovum, each haploid, so it describes the cells that combine, not the product.

Correct Answer: -centesis

The suffix -centesis means surgical withdrawal of fluid. Combined with the root for amnion, it builds the term for the procedure that removes amniotic fluid. Option b is incorrect because it indicates constriction or narrowing of a passage, which is a different concept from removing fluid. Option c is incorrect because it means incision, cut into, which describes opening tissue rather than withdrawing fluid from a space. Option d is incorrect because it denotes rupture, a tearing or bursting of a structure, and carries no meaning of drawing off fluid.

Correct Answer: Contraction stress test

A contraction stress test monitors the baby's heart rate while oxytocin causes the uterus to contract. It may be performed after abnormal nonstress test results, and it shows how the heart rate reacts to contractions. Option a is incorrect because it checks chorionic villi from the placenta to diagnose chromosome problems or genetic diseases, so it does not involve inducing contractions. Option b is incorrect because it removes a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus under ultrasound guidance to test for fetal abnormalities, not to observe heart rate responses. Option c is incorrect because it analyzes small fragments of DNA circulating in the mother's blood to determine genetic risk and involves no oxytocin or heart rate monitoring.

Correct Answer: Arthrocentesis

Arthrocentesis is a surgical puncture to aspirate fluid from a joint, so it is a procedure rather than medical imaging. CT, MRI, and PET are imaging procedures used in radiology. Option a is incorrect because magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) appears among the imaging procedures that radiologists use to see inside the body and assess a patient's condition. Option c is incorrect because positron emission tomography (PET) is listed with X-rays and ultrasound as a medical imaging procedure within radiology. Option d is incorrect because computed tomography (CT) is named in the description of radiologists as one of the medical imaging procedures they use for diagnosis.