AAPC-CPC Certified Professional Coder - Set 1 - Part 1

Correct Answer: Oste/o/arthr/itis

When breaking down a term, slashes go between word parts and a slash goes on each side of a combining form vowel. Oste/o/arthr/itis separates the bone part, the vowel, the joint part and the suffix. Option a is incorrect because it fuses the vowel onto arthr, so the vowel is not set apart, and bone and joint parts are not cleanly separated. Option c is incorrect because it divides only the suffix and merges the bone and joint parts into one block, though slashes belong between every word part. Option d is incorrect because it leaves the vowel attached to oste, so the combining form vowel does not have a slash on each side as the convention requires.

Correct Answer: All, total

The prefix pan- means all or total, and pancytopenia is the example of use given for it. A prefix sits at the beginning of a term and alters the meaning of the term. Option a is incorrect because that meaning belongs to poly-, as in polymyositis, and to multi-, as in multipara; it is a close neighbor but not the prefix here. Option b is incorrect because dia- carries this meaning, as in dialysis, so it describes a different prefix that begins a different term. Option c is incorrect because sym- and syn- mean together or joined, as in symphysis; that pair is unrelated to the opening word part of this term.

Correct Answer: Mental region

The mental region is the named body region that encompasses the chin. Named regions of the head also include the buccal region for the cheeks, the otic region for the ears and the nasal region for the nose. Option a is incorrect because it covers the neck, which lies below the head and the chin. Option b is incorrect because it names the cheeks, which sit on either side of the face rather than at the chin. Option d is incorrect because it refers to the ears, also called the auricle, so it describes a different part of the head.

Correct Answer: Deep

Deep describes a position farther from the surface of the body, so it is the opposite of superficial, which describes a position closer to the surface. An example given is that the brain is deep to the skull. Option b is incorrect because it describes a limb position farther from the point of attachment or the trunk, which is a different pair from surface-based location. Option c is incorrect because it marks a position below or lower than another body part, so it pairs with superior rather than with depth. Option d is incorrect because this term, also called dorsal, points toward the back of the body and is the opposite of anterior.

Correct Answer: Visceral layer

In a serous membrane, the visceral layer covers the organs (the viscera), while the parietal layer lines the walls of the body cavity. A thin fluid-filled serous space separates the two layers. Option a is incorrect because it lines the walls of the body cavity rather than covering the organs, so it is the outer partner of the pair. Option b is incorrect because it names the very thin fluid-filled gap lying between the parietal and visceral layers, not a membrane layer. Option c is incorrect because it is the epithelium that makes up a serous membrane, supported by connective tissue, not the name of the organ-covering layer.

Correct Answer: omphal/o

The combining form omphal/o means umbilicus or navel in the obstetric word part list. The other forms listed, amni/o, chori/o and embry/o, name the amnion, the chorion and the embryo. Option b is incorrect because it denotes the embryo, the developing organism itself, rather than the navel. Option c is incorrect because it stands for the chorion, which is a different structure listed separately from the umbilicus among obstetric word parts. Option d is incorrect because it refers to the amnion and amniotic fluid, not to the navel or umbilicus.

Correct Answer: Tidal volume

Tidal volume is the amount of air that enters the lungs during quiet breathing. Spirometry testing measures air volume to find out how well the lungs are working, and tidal volume is one of these measures. Option a is incorrect because is the air still left in the lungs once the expiratory reserve volume has been expelled, not the air moved during quiet breaths. Option b is incorrect because names air within respiratory structures that never reaches functional alveoli, so it takes no part in gas exchange. Option d is incorrect because describes the extra air drawn in when a person inhales past the tidal volume, so it goes beyond quiet breathing.

Correct Answer: Melanoma

Melanoma is the uncontrolled growth of melanocytes. It is the most fatal skin cancer because it is highly metastatic and can be hard to detect before spreading to other organs. Option b is incorrect because it is a genetic disorder of melanin production in skin, hair and eyes, not a cancer, and does not directly affect lifespan. Option c is incorrect because it affects keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum and is more aggressive than basal cell carcinoma, yet it is not called the most fatal skin cancer. Option d is incorrect because it begins in the stratum basale, usually spreads along that boundary, and is readily cured when caught early and treated.

Correct Answer: Biopsy of the cells

Prostate cancer is detected by medical history, a blood test and a digital rectal exam. When a mass is found, the cancer diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy of the cells. Option a is incorrect because medical history is a detection tool used before a mass is found, so it cannot establish the diagnosis once a mass is palpated. Option b is incorrect because a blood test is named as one of the detection methods, alongside history and the exam, and is not the confirming step. Option d is incorrect because the digital rectal exam lets the physician palpate the prostate for unusual masses; it detects a mass but does not confirm cancer.

Correct Answer: Epididymitis

Chlamydia is treated with antibiotic pills, but if the patient has epididymitis, hospitalization and treatment with intravenous (IV) antibiotics may be needed. Epididymitis is therefore the finding that changes the treatment setting. Option a is incorrect because penial discharge is described as a symptom with itching around the urethra, not as the complication that moves treatment to the hospital. Option b is incorrect because urethritis is listed among the symptoms males may experience with chlamydia, and the guidance does not name it as a reason for hospital treatment. Option c is incorrect because dysuria appears only in the list of male symptoms, alongside polyuria and urethral pain, and is not tied to intravenous therapy.

Correct Answer: Urine for culture and sensitivity

Urine for culture and sensitivity (C&S) detects and identifies bacteria in the urine that may cause a urinary tract infection. When harmful bacteria are found, a sensitivity report lists the antibiotics effective against them. Option b is incorrect because it gathers all urinary output over a 24-hour period to indicate normal or abnormal kidney function, not to identify bacteria or antibiotics. Option c is incorrect because it is a microscopic group of urine tests that detects and measures substances such as bacteria, but it does not produce a sensitivity report. Option d is incorrect because it is an imaging procedure using x-rays and computer technology to show kidney disease, cancer or obstructions, and it does not analyze urine.

Correct Answer: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Left untreated, chlamydia in females can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), which can cause permanent damage to the reproductive organs and subsequent infertility. Option a is incorrect because it is the term for a false pregnancy, an obstetric term unrelated to the outcome of an untreated infection. Option b is incorrect because it is an abnormal condition of the endometrium whose cause is unknown, so it is not described as a result of untreated chlamydia. Option c is incorrect because it has no known etiology and has been linked by researchers to excessive insulin production, not to a bacterial infection.

Correct Answer: terat/o

The combining form terat/o means malformations. It is the obstetric word part used for terms describing abnormal fetal development, so it fits the agent described in the note. Option b is incorrect because it stands for the chorion, a membrane structure, and has no link to malformations in the fetus. Option c is incorrect because it names the umbilicus, or navel, so it would appear in terms about the cord site rather than abnormal development. Option d is incorrect because it refers to the amnion and amniotic fluid, the membrane and fluid surrounding the fetus, and says nothing about malformations.

Correct Answer: Lochia

Lochia is the obstetric term for vaginal discharge after birth. It is one of the obstetric words not easily broken into word parts, so it is learned as a whole term. Option a is incorrect because it names the first stool of the newborn, so it describes the infant rather than a maternal discharge. Option b is incorrect because this word part term means discharge of milk, which comes from the breast, whereas the finding described is vaginal. Option d is incorrect because it is the thin, milky fluid secreted by the breast during pregnancy and the first few days after delivery, not a vaginal discharge.

Correct Answer: Anaphylactic shock

Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic response that causes widespread release of histamines, triggering vasodilation throughout the body. The scenario matches this definition, which separates it from the other recognized forms of shock. Option a is incorrect because it occurs when arterioles lose normal muscular tone and dilate, with various causes, and treatment relies on fluid replacement and pressor agents; an allergic trigger defines a different form. Option b is incorrect because it stems from the heart's inability to maintain cardiac output, most often after a myocardial infarction, which is a cardiac cause rather than an allergic one. Option c is incorrect because it is typically caused by hemorrhage in adults, or by severe vomiting or diarrhea in children, not by a histamine-driven allergic response.

Correct Answer: Myocarditis

Myocarditis is built as my/o/card/itis: muscle, heart, and the suffix -itis meaning inflammation. Together the parts give inflammation of the muscle of the heart, which matches the documentation. Option b is incorrect because it is built from peri/card/itis and names inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, not the heart muscle. Option c is incorrect because its parts, valvul/itis, mean inflammation of a valve, so it points to a heart valve rather than the muscular wall. Option d is incorrect because it combines end/o with card/itis and describes inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, a different structure from the muscle.

Correct Answer: Chyle

Chyle is the term for lipid-rich lymph inside the lymphatic capillaries of the small intestine. It is listed among the lymphatic and immune medical terms that are not easily broken into word parts. Option a is incorrect because interstitial describes what lies between cells of the tissues, which is a location descriptor and does not name lipid-rich lymph. Option b is incorrect because histamine is a vasoactive mediator in the granules of mast cells and is a primary cause of allergies, not a lymph fluid. Option c is incorrect because an antigen is a molecule recognized by the receptors of B and T lymphocytes, so it names an immune trigger rather than a fluid.

Correct Answer: Sigmoidoscopy

Sigmoidoscopy (sigmoid/o/scopy) is defined as the process of viewing the sigmoid colon. The suffix -scopy indicates viewing, and the root sigmoid identifies the portion of the colon examined. Option a is incorrect because means viewing the abdominal cavity, so it does not target the sigmoid colon specifically. Option c is incorrect because describes the process of viewing the rectum, a different structure than the sigmoid colon. Option d is incorrect because is the creation of an artificial opening in the colon, a surgical procedure rather than a viewing procedure.

Correct Answer: kneecap

The combining form patell/o means patella, commonly called the kneecap. It is one of the skeletal combining forms that name specific bones, alongside forms such as scapul/o, stern/o and clavic/o. Option b is incorrect because collarbone is the meaning given for clavic/o and clavicul/o, which name the clavicle rather than the patella. Option c is incorrect because breastbone is the sternum, a bone named by stern/o and located in the chest, far from the knee. Option d is incorrect because the shoulder blade is the scapula, which is represented by the combining form scapul/o, not patell/o.

Correct Answer: Dyskinesia

Dyskinesia combines dys- (painful, difficult, abnormal) with kinesi/o (movement, motion) and the suffix -ia, so it means a condition of difficult movement, matching the described findings. Option a is incorrect because it pairs dys- with the suffix -trophy and means abnormal development; it contains no movement combining form at all. Option b is incorrect because it uses hyper- and means a condition of excessive movement, which is a different problem from difficult movement. Option d is incorrect because it describes a condition of slow movement, built from brady-, so it does not capture difficult movement.