HESI-P HESI Pharmacology - Set 5 - Part 3

Correct Answer: Prepare in a biological safety cabinet

Intravenous chemotherapy is prepared in an air-vented space, specifically a biological safety cabinet. Appropriate personal protective equipment, including gloves, gown, eye protectors, and mask, reduces exposure, and equipment is discarded in biohazard containers. Option a is incorrect because standard room ventilation does not contain aerosolized hazardous medications, which can expose nurses and others. The chapter requires a biological safety cabinet specifically engineered to vent and contain particles released during chemotherapy preparation. Option b is incorrect because standard exam gloves alone are insufficient because the chapter calls for the full set of protective equipment. Gowns, eye protection, and a mask are added so hazardous splashes and aerosols cannot reach mucous membranes. Option d is incorrect because regular waste streams do not capture hazardous chemotherapy residues, which must be discarded in designated biohazard containers. The chapter specifies separate di

Correct Answer: Check blood return prior to administration

Vesicants should be administered through a central line when possible. If a peripheral line is used, the nurse checks for blood return prior to administration. The nurse also monitors for phlebitis and extravasation throughout the infusion of the medication. Option b is incorrect because using the smallest peripheral vein increases the risk of phlebitis and extravasation from a vesicant. The chapter directs blood return checks and vigilant monitoring rather than narrowing access, since vesicants damage tissue if leakage occurs. Option c is incorrect because maximum infusion rate does not match the chapter's directive for controlled administration of antineoplastic medications. The nurse instead verifies vein integrity before starting and monitors throughout, since rapid infusion increases the risk of phlebitis. Option d is incorrect because skipping the pre-infusion site assessment ignores the chapter's directive to verify blood return and check the integrity of the vein. The

Correct Answer: Take this medication without food

Oral cyclophosphamide is administered without food per the chapter. The client also increases fluid intake to two to three liters daily to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis and reports signs of infection or bleeding promptly during therapy. Option a is incorrect because pairing the dose with a snack contradicts the directive to take oral cyclophosphamide without food. Even a small amount of food does not match the stated administration guidance and could alter absorption of the medication. Option b is incorrect because taking with the largest meal directly contradicts the chapter's directive that oral cyclophosphamide is administered without food. A heavy meal pushes the dose into a fed state, which alters timing and undermines reliable home dosing. Option c is incorrect because crushing and mixing with juice is not the chapter's stated administration directive for oral cyclophosphamide. The chapter specifies taking the medication without food, so crushing and mixing ch

Correct Answer: Spicy, high-fiber, hot-temperature foods

If diarrhea is a problem, the client avoids spicy foods, high-fiber foods, and foods that are hot in temperature, because these increase peristalsis. Bland room-temperature options are usually better tolerated during this antineoplastic-related side effect. Option a is incorrect because bland room-temperature foods are usually better tolerated during diarrhea and are not the foods to avoid. The chapter directs avoidance of spicy, high-fiber, and hot foods, so bland choices match comfort rather than avoidance. Option b is incorrect because cooled clear liquids in small amounts support hydration during diarrhea rather than worsen the symptom. Sips help replace ongoing losses without irritating the bowel, so this option belongs on the encouraged list rather than restricted. Option d is incorrect because low-fat protein supports adequate caloric and protein intake during therapy and is not on the avoidance list. These selections preserve nutrition without increasing bowel motility, so the

Correct Answer: Soft toothbrush and electric razor

The client uses a soft toothbrush and electric razor to minimize bleeding during chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. The client also avoids aspirin-containing products, avoids crowds and infections, and reports signs of infection such as low-grade fever, chills, or sore throat. Option b is incorrect because a stiff toothbrush and straight razor increase risk of gum bleeding and skin lacerations during thrombocytopenia. The chapter directs softer alternatives to reduce mucosal and skin injury when platelets are low, contrary to this option. Option c is incorrect because aspirin-containing products are explicitly avoided during antineoplastic therapy because of bleeding risk. The chapter directs the client away from aspirin, so a lozenge containing aspirin would worsen bleeding risk rather than match teaching. Option d is incorrect because hot oil treatments and waxing strips can damage fragile skin and provide no benefit during thrombocytopenia. The chapter directs the client toward

Correct Answer: Erythropoietic growth factor therapy

Anemia of chronic disease is treated with iron, given orally or intravenously, along with erythropoietic growth factors, leukopoietic growth factors, and thrombopoietic growth factors. The chapter references chapter fifty-five for additional information on these agents. Option a is incorrect because intramuscular iron is not the routine administration described here. The chapter pairs anemia of chronic disease with oral or intravenous iron and erythropoietic growth factors, so intramuscular weekly iron is not the named class. Option b is incorrect because vitamin B twelve oral therapy is used for vitamin B twelve deficiency anemia rather than anemia of chronic disease. The chapter assigns different treatments to anemia categories, so this choice would not match the approach. Option c is incorrect because high-dose folate is used for folate-deficiency anemia per the chapter. Anemia of chronic disease is treated with iron and growth factors, so folate would not be the chapter's name

Correct Answer: Allergic reactions during infusion

Monoclonal antibodies such as rituximab, trastuzumab, alemtuzumab, bevacizumab, and cetuximab are used as targeted therapies. Allergic reactions are the named adverse effect of monoclonal antibodies, so the nurse stays alert for early signs and emergency response. Option a is incorrect because peripheral neuropathy is the signature of vincristine, stavudine, and certain other agents per the chapter. Monoclonal antibodies are paired with allergic reactions in the chapter, so neuropathy would not be the priority vigilance during infusion. Option b is incorrect because pancreatitis with elevated amylase is associated with didanosine and asparaginase per the chapter. Monoclonal antibody infusion-time risk centers on allergic reactions, so pancreatitis would not match the chapter's stated focus for this medication. Option d is incorrect because Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with sulfonamides and nevirapine per the chapter. The vigilance during a monoclonal antibody infusion ta

Correct Answer: Mesna for bladder protection

Mesna may be administered with ifosfamide to reduce the potential for ifosfamide-induced cystitis. The client is also encouraged to drink two to three liters of fluid daily during therapy, unless contraindicated, to reduce the risk further. Option a is incorrect because dexrazoxane is the cardioprotective agent given with doxorubicin rather than the bladder protectant. The chapter pairs ifosfamide with mesna for bladder protection, so dexrazoxane would not be the medication anticipated for this prescription. Option c is incorrect because leucovorin is the rescue agent given after high-dose methotrexate. Its role is sparing normal cells from prolonged antimetabolite exposure, which addresses a different chemotherapy concern entirely than the bladder protection asked about here. Option d is incorrect because allopurinol lowers uric acid after cell breakdown and does not protect the bladder. It targets the purine load released by tumor lysis, leaving urinary mucosa unprotected from acrole

Correct Answer: Avoid antacids for two hours after dose

Ketoconazole is administered with food, and antacids are avoided for two hours after taking the medication, because antacids interfere with absorption. The client also monitors liver function studies, avoids alcohol, and avoids sun exposure throughout therapy. Option a is incorrect because simultaneous dosing eliminates the protective spacing window, since alkaline pH from the antacid lowers ketoconazole uptake at the same moment. Concurrent administration cancels antifungal effectiveness and contradicts the spacing rule the chapter requires. Option b is incorrect because an hour-before strategy still places antacid action in the stomach when ketoconazole arrives, blunting absorption. The chapter sets a separation window measured in hours afterward, so this earlier timing fails the required spacing between doses. Option d is incorrect because unrestricted antacid use during ketoconazole therapy contradicts the chapter's stated absorption rule. Free pairing destroys the spacing req

Correct Answer: Increased risk of lymphomas over time

Mycophenolate mofetil and mycophenolic acid prevent rejection following kidney, heart, and liver transplantation. The chapter describes an increased risk of infection and malignancies, especially lymphomas, along with adverse effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, neutropenia, and sepsis. Option a is incorrect because Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with sulfonamides and nevirapine per the chapter rather than mycophenolate mofetil. The chapter pairs this immunosuppressant with infection and malignancy risk, so a dermatological reaction would not be the long-term concern. Option b is incorrect because peripheral neuropathy is the signature of vincristine and stavudine per the chapter. Nerve damage does not appear in the immunosuppressant profile, so gait and paresthesia checks would miss the lymphoma surveillance this drug requires. Option c is incorrect because pancreatitis with elevated amylase is associated with didanosine and asparaginase per the chapter. Mycophenolate mofetil i